Polity

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1.

Which of the following pairs regarding the Parts of the Indian Constitution is NOT correctly matched?

  • A

    Part II: Citizenship

  • B

    Part III: Fundamental Rights

  • C

    Part IV-A: Fundamental Duties

  • D

    Part V: The States

Explanation

Option (d) is incorrectly matched. Part V of the Constitution deals with "The Union" (Articles 52 to 151). "The States" are dealt with in Part VI. Options (a), (b), and (c) are perfectly matched with their respective constitutional parts.

2.

In the context of recent administrative clarifications regarding the decision-making process within the Election Commission, consider the following statements:

  1. Under the law and the Constitution, the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is empowered to take unilateral decisions on policy matters if a consensus is not reached.

  2. The ECI has asserted that policy decisions, including those related to Special Intensive Revision (SIR), require the unanimous approval of the multi-member body.

  3. Internal deliberations and the recording of comments by Election Commissioners (ECs) are legally recognized as a "difference of opinion" that invalidates final Commission orders.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • A

    2 only

  • B

    1 and 3 only

  • C

    1 and 2 only

  • D

    2 and 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect; the source explicitly mentions that the CEC "cannot take unilateral decisions under the law and the Constitution." Statement 2 is correct; the ECI stated that SIR decisions were taken with the "unanimous approval of all three commissioners." Statement 3 is incorrect; the ECI clarified that internal deliberations are "normal and proper" and should not be portrayed as a "difference of opinion" regarding final decisions.

3.

Which of the following correctly describes a legal difference between the ICCPR and the ICESCR?

  • A

    ICCPR rights are "programmatic," while ICESCR rights are "mandatory."

  • B

    The ICESCR is subject to the "maximum of available resources," whereas the ICCPR requires states to "respect and ensure" rights immediately.

  • C

    Only the ICCPR is considered a legally binding treaty under international law.

  • D

    The ICESCR focuses exclusively on civil liberties like freedom from torture.

Explanation

The ICESCR allows for "progressive achievement" based on resources, acknowledging that social welfare requires state capacity. The ICCPR demands immediate compliance with civil liberties.

  • Why others are incorrect: A is reversed. C is incorrect as both are binding treaties. D describes ICCPR rights.

4.

According to Article 368 of the Constitution, which of the following provisions can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and the consent of half of the state legislatures?

1.Election of the President and its manner.

2.Fundamental Rights.

3.Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • A

    1 and 2 only

  • B

    1 and 3 only

  • C

    2 and 3 only

  • D

    1, 2, and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 relate to the federal structure of the Constitution, thus requiring a special majority of Parliament plus ratification by half the states. Statement 2 is incorrect because Fundamental Rights can be amended by a special majority of Parliament alone, without requiring state ratification, provided the basic structure is not violated

5.

Regarding Chief Minister Omar Abdullah’s observations at the 2026 Hindu Huddle, consider the following statements:

  1. He argued that Article 370 was the primary driver of the region's historical lack of development.

  2. He contended that having "different systems" for land purchase is not unique to J&K and exists in other Indian states.

  3. He questioned the feasibility of "One Nation, One Election" in a country where state governments have no fixed terms.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  • A

    Only one

  • B

    Only two

  • C

    Only three

  • D

    None of the above

Explanation

Two statements are correct. Statement 2 reflects his argument that J&K was unfairly singled out. Statement 3 reflects his skepticism about the logistics of synchronized elections in a diverse democracy.

  • Why others are incorrect: Statement 1 is incorrect; Abdullah explicitly stated that Article 370 was never the cause of a lack of development, attributing the region's struggles instead to decades of violence.

6.

With reference to the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST), which of the following is correct?

  • A

    Both are statutory bodies created by an Act of Parliament in 2003

  • B

    They are constitutional bodies, having originally functioned as a SINGLE combined commission under Article 338, before being SPLIT into two separate commissions — NCSC continuing under Article 338 and NCST created under a new Article 338A — by the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003

  • C

    They have the same enforcement powers as ordinary civil courts, and their recommendations are legally binding on the government

  • D

    Only the NCST is a constitutional body; the NCSC is a statutory body

Explanation

Originally, a SINGLE National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes functioned under Article 338. The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 SPLIT this single body into two separate constitutional commissions: the National Commission for Scheduled Castes continues to function under a re-worded Article 338, while a NEW National Commission for Scheduled Tribes was created under a newly inserted Article 338A — both remain CONSTITUTIONAL bodies, not statutory. Each Commission has functions including investigating and monitoring matters relating to safeguards for SCs/STs under the Constitution, inquiring into specific complaints of rights violations, participating in and advising on planning for SC/ST socio-economic development, and submitting annual or as-needed reports to the President.

7.

According to Thomas Paine in Rights of Man, what is the relationship between "charters" and "rights"?

  • A

    Charters are the primary source of natural rights in a democracy.

  • B

    Charters are instruments of injustice that operate by taking rights away from the majority.

  • C

    Charters act as the only legally binding way to protect universal human rights

  • D

    Rights are only valid if they are codified in a government-issued charter.

Explanation

Paine argued that it is a "perversion of terms" to say a charter gives rights; instead, charters exclude the majority and leave rights in the hands of a few.

  • Why others are incorrect: Paine’s central thesis was that rights are inherent to inhabitants and exist prior to any government compact.

8.

Which of the following is empowered to decide disputes regarding the disqualification of a Member of Parliament on grounds of defection?

  • A

    The President

  • B

    The Speaker/Chairman of the House

  • C

    The Election Commission

  • D

    The Supreme Court alone

Explanation

Under the Tenth Schedule, disputes on disqualification due to defection are decided by the Speaker (in the Lok Sabha/Legislative Assembly) or the Chairman (in the Rajya Sabha/Legislative Council), subject to judicial review by courts.

9.

Consider the following statements regarding the Golaknath Case (1967):

1.The Supreme Court ruled that Parliament has no power to amend Part III of the Constitution to take away or abridge fundamental rights.

2.It introduced the concept of the Basic Structure of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • A

    1 only

  • B

    2 only

  • C

    Both 1 and 2

  • D

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct; the SC reversed its earlier stance and ruled that Fundamental Rights are given a "transcendental and immutable" position, hence Parliament cannot abridge them. Statement 2 is incorrect because the "Basic Structure" doctrine was introduced later in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), specifically to counter the rigidity created by the Golaknath judgment while still protecting the Constitution's core.

10.

Which of the following correctly identifies the vacancies and the subsequent appointments for the 2026 U.S. Senate Special Elections?

  • A

    Marco Rubio (Florida) and JD Vance (Ohio) vacated seats that are currently held by Ashley Moody and Jon Husted, respectively.

  • B

    The Florida seat was vacated following Marco Rubio’s election as Vice President of the United States.

  • C

    Jon Husted was appointed by Governor Ron DeSantis to fill the vacancy left by the new U.S. Secretary of State.

  • D

    The special elections in Florida and Ohio will be conducted on a separate calendar from the November 3, 2026, general elections

Explanation

As per the source context, Marco Rubio (FL) resigned to become Secretary of State, and JD Vance (OH) resigned after being elected Vice President. Their seats are held by appointees Ashley Moody and Jon Husted. Option B is incorrect because Rubio became Secretary of State, not VP. Option C is a distractor as Husted was appointed by Ohio Governor Mike DeWine, not DeSantis. Option D is incorrect as they occur concurrently with the general elections.

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